how legal is it for local authorities to misrepresent legislation?
Just some of the information and evidence shared on FreeCouncilTax dot co dot uk telegram channel
"Hereditament dwellings have in fact to be included on the non-domestic "rates list" provided by the VOA as they are defined as commercial business property period.
Domestic property is not included on the non-domestic list relied on by councils in the 1992 act to collect rates revenue, non-domestic
we have clearly established the council now state Domestic Property is "Chargeable" not "rateable" what's the definition of chargeable ?
What part of the 1992 act do they rely on that states Domestic Property is "Chargeable"
Further confirm what in fact a Dwelling-House is in law as you imply we are living in dwelling-house
What part of the Martin & Ors case do you not understand that states domestic property is exempt para 6
what part of 1988 section 66/1a do you not understand
Waiting for a reply has reality made the penny drop you was quite confident when you wrote the above post seems you have the dummy now due to facts being stated
How you justify being billed for commercial rates under the guise of Non-domestic, this word defines everything
non-
/nÉ’n/
prefix
1.
expressing negation or absence.
"non-aggression"
2.
(added to adverbs) not in the way described.
"non-uniformly"
It appears you clearly understand but fail to address the main point of what we are in fact challenging that is being billed non-domestic commercial business rates under the guise of hereditament dwellings for Domestic property, or Domestic Living Accommodation,
we do not in fact live in a Dwelling-House or a composite Hereditament or Dwelling accommodation or residential property or any other terms you wish to refer as the LGFA 1992 is clear you are billing Domestic Property and classing it as commercial business being the only misleading way available to commit the fraud !"
Call for public enquiry into council tax
https://petition.parliament.uk/petitions/644459
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