"A court in Germany has authorized a group of Sharia police to continue enforcing Islamic law"
A court in Germany has authorized a group of self appointed Sharia police to continue enforcing Islamic law in the city of Wuppertal.
"The court ruled the group is not breaking German law but is exercising its right to free speech". How does that make any sense whatsoever. It can't be explained as it literally makes no logical sense.
How can a country have two 'law' systems running at the same time? Unless they are identical, then they are not compatible. If they were identical, then they wouldn't both be needed.
What do you think? Please comment and if you could Like, Share and Subscribe that would be much appreciated. Many thanks.
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