Let Us Reason

How is it that the Bible clearly describes the Rapture of the Church as an imminent, signless, and unpredictable event - yet also describes the beginning of the broad period of the Day of the Lord in this exact way? How can both of these end-time events truly be imminent? If one were to occur first, then logically, the other could not be described as "imminent." Similarly, how is it that the New Testament consistently portrays the rescue of the righteous as coinciding with the beginning of judgment for the wicked, with both being described as imminent? Can it be that there is a simple biblical paradigm that, when consistently applied, easily clarifies these apparent dilemmas - one that most modern scholars have somehow overlooked? Can it harmonize all of the difficult and seemingly contradictory end-time Bible passages that have perplexed readers for generations? In this video, I present this "missing key" paradigm - the topic of my new book - a comprehensive, first-of-its-kind study! Buy this book on Amazon in either paperback or Kindle formats: https://a.co/d/7SGd7xm https://www.letusreason.com

Should Christians be expecting the imminence (suddenness/signlessness/unpredictability) of the Rapture of the Church or should we be watching for end-time signs that give us insight into the Rapture's nearness? Mike joins Kym on LifeClips Podcast to discuss this often misunderstood aspect of Bible prophecy. LifeClips Podcast: https://rumble.com/user/LifeClips_Podcast https://www.letusreason.com

How is it that the Bible clearly describes the Rapture of the Church as an imminent, signless, and unpredictable event - yet also describes the beginning of the broad period of the Day of the Lord in this exact way? How can both of these end-time events truly be imminent? If one were to occur first, then logically, the other could not be described as "imminent." Similarly, how is it that the New Testament consistently portrays the rescue of the righteous as coinciding with the beginning of judgment for the wicked, with both being described as imminent? Can it be that there is a simple biblical paradigm that, when consistently applied, easily clarifies these apparent dilemmas - one that most modern scholars have somehow overlooked? Can it harmonize all of the difficult and seemingly contradictory end-time Bible passages that have perplexed readers for generations? In this video, I present this "missing key" paradigm - the topic of my new book - a comprehensive, first-of-its-kind study! Buy this book on Amazon in either paperback or Kindle formats: https://a.co/d/7SGd7xm https://www.letusreason.com I also want to credit the artist who created the incredible art used on this video's thumbnail: Caleb Jasper Lumingkit. Please visit his account on Artstation and take a look at his other works. You can also directly contact him for specially commissioned works. https://www.artstation.com/caleb_jsper

What does the New Testament mean when it tells believers to "watch" in eschatological contexts? Does it mean watching for "end-time signs" in order to predict the Rapture, as we've often been told? Join us for a teaching on the biblical meaning of watching for the return of Jesus. https://www.letusreason.com

What is the Parousia of Christ, and how does it relate to the end-times? What are some common assumptions and misconceptions regarding Bible prophecy? What is the pattern Jesus used to describe His future coming, and how does it relate to the paradigm presented in The Missing Key in Dispensational Eschatology? Mike returns to join Bruce Davis on the In Awe by Bruce Podcast to further discuss these questions. https://www.letusreason.com Buy The Missing Key on Amazon in either paperback or Kindle formats: https://a.co/d/dcAyzNt In Awe By Bruce Podcast Website: https://www.inawebybruce.com/podcast In Awe by Bruce Podcast on Spotify: https://open.spotify.com/show/7cOoh6pXO7LNym6YgHjdU6?si=c3d6a095b987473a

When Jesus delivered His famed Olivet Discourse, in which He disclosed information related to His future Parousia (coming), He refers to a group of righteous people being rescued at this time. Is this the Rapture of the Church? Can a precise recognition of the context of this discourse answer this for us? Mike joins Kym on LifeClips Podcast to discuss this often-debated question. LifeClips Podcast: https://www.youtube.com/c/LifeclipsPodcast/featured https://www.letusreason.com

On April 8th 2024, a total solar eclipse will occur and will follow a path across the United States. Many have claimed that the path will go through cities named after prominent biblical names and concepts like Nineveh, Salem, and Rapture. Many have gone on to notice that when combined with the path of the 2017 eclipse, these two eclipse pathways form an "X" across America. There have then been different interpretations of this "X". Some take it to be a reference to the Rapture, which many are predicting will happen on this day. Others believe it reveals coming judgment on America. Still others have connected the eclipse with Jesus's statement about the "sign of Jonah" in Matthew 12. What is the truth about this? Mike joins Kym Duarte on LifeClips Podcast to discuss this topic. LifeClips Podcast: https://rumble.com/user/LifeClips_Podcast https://www.letusreason.com

On April 8th 2024, a total solar eclipse will occur and will follow a path across the United States. Many have claimed that the path will go through cities named after prominent biblical names and concepts like Nineveh, Salem, and Rapture. Many have gone on to notice that when combined with the path of the 2017 eclipse, these two eclipse pathways form an "X" across America. There have then been different interpretations of this "X". Some take it to be a reference to the Rapture, which many are predicting will happen on this day. Others believe it reveals coming judgment on America. Many have connected the eclipse with Jesus's statement about the "sign of Jonah" in Matthew 12. What is the truth about this? What is the sign of Jonah in the biblical context? Can it refer to an event today? https://www.letusreason.com

The Bible speaks about "birth pangs" that will be felt near the times of the Messiah's comings. Are we feeling and witnessing those birth pangs signs today, leading us to believe that we are in the end-times and that Jesus's coming is near - as many modern Bible prophecy teachers claim? What does the Bible actually say about this? https://www.letusreason.com

How is it that the Bible clearly describes the Rapture of the Church as an imminent, signless, and unpredictable event - yet also describes the beginning of the broad period of the Day of the Lord in this exact way? How can both of these end-time events truly be imminent? If one were to occur first, then logically, the other could not be described as "imminent." Similarly, how is it that the New Testament consistently portrays the rescue of the righteous as coinciding with the beginning of judgment for the wicked, with both being described as imminent? Can it be that there is a simple biblical paradigm that, when consistently applied, easily clarifies these apparent dilemmas - one that most modern scholars have somehow overlooked? Can it harmonize all of the difficult and seemingly contradictory end-time Bible passages that have perplexed readers for generations? In this video, I present this "missing key" paradigm - the topic of my new book - a comprehensive, first-of-its-kind study! Buy this book on Amazon in either paperback or Kindle formats: https://a.co/d/7SGd7xm https://www.letusreason.com

In the previous video, we discussed the correct and the incorrect meanings of the biblical call toward eschatological "watchfulness." We pointed out a number of reasons that logically refute the popular notion of watching for end-time signs, and instead defined "watching" as meaning watching for the Lord's return and spiritual readiness. In this video, we further clarify this definition. https://www.letusreason.com

What is the Parousia of Christ, and how does it relate to the end-times? What are some common assumptions and misconceptions regarding Bible prophecy? What is the pattern Jesus used to describe His future coming, and how does it relate to the paradigm presented in The Missing Key in Dispensational Eschatology? Mike joins Bruce Davis on the In Awe by Bruce Podcast to discuss these questions. https://www.letusreason.com In Awe By Bruce Podcast Website: https://www.inawebybruce.com/podcast In Awe by Bruce Podcast on Spotify: https://open.spotify.com/show/7cOoh6pXO7LNym6YgHjdU6?si=c3d6a095b987473a

There exists much confusion today concerning the biblical phrase "the Day of the Lord." What does this term mean? Is it a synonym of the Tribulation? Does the Day of the Lord start when the Tribulation starts? Does it start before the Tribulation? Or, is it just the climactic Second Coming at the end of the Tribulation? Does it actually also include the Millennium? How does the Bible apply this multi-nuanced term? We will answer all of these questions and much more in this video. Buy Mike's book The Missing Key in Dispensational Eschatology on Amazon in either paperback or Kindle formats: https://a.co/d/7SGd7xm https://www.letusreason.com

In recent decades, a particular interpretation of Jesus's parabolic mention of the "fig tree" in His Olivet Discourse has become popular. This view associates the return of national Israel as a state in 1948 with the fig tree spoken of by Jesus. In combination with His other statements in those verses, the common claim is that Jesus was saying that the Rapture or Second Coming must take place within one generation of the re-establishment of Israel as a nation in 1948. This has given rise to much speculation concerning the biblical length of a generation. Although around 75 years has passed since 1948, this view is still popular, and has spawned a seemingly endless stream of Rapture date-setting schemes and speculations (all of which, of course, have failed). Is this really what Jesus was teaching when He used the example of the fig tree in this discourse? What signs did He point to? What generation was He speaking of? What was His context? Is this "fig tree fallacy" interpretation the result of the careful application of a literal/plain hermeneutic? We examine all of these questions in this video! https://www.letusreason.com